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:: MRSA Home

:: Program Information

:: Publisher's Forward

:: Introduction &    
   Epidemiology

:: Comparison of CA- &
   HA-MRSA

:: Diagnosis

:: Management & Treatment

:: Preventing the Spread
   of MRSA

:: Case Studies

:: Summary

:: Appendix A

:: Appendix B

:: Appendix C

:: Appendix D

:: Appendix E

:: CME Test & Evaluation

Case Studies

DR. CORDOVER: Dr. Fox, we'd like your guidance in diagnosing and treating a couple of typical examples of patients we often see in the Emergency Department. First, an 81-year-old man came into my ED with intermittent fevers reported by his nursing home. He is on dialysis but has not been in the hospital for more than six months. His urine is clean, but his white count is over 14,000. I cannot find a clear source. Is there an occult MRSA bacteremia? What would you do with this fellow?

DR. FOX: This is a tough patient. We have someone presenting from a nursing home who does not have a clear source for his fever and has an elevated white blood cell count. Under most circumstances, the differential diagnosis of this would be relatively broad, including lower respiratory tract, urine, and bloodstream related infections. However, since the patient is on dialysis and has potential frequent manipulation of a line, the possibility of occult methicillin resistant Staphylococcus should be higher on your list for this particular patient. Hence, I would be very concerned about the possibility of occult MRSA bacteremia in a dialysis patient. After obtaining blood cultures in this patient, I would strongly consider giving a dose of an intravenous antibiotic while the cultures were waiting. Ultimately, the decision whether to admit the patient to the hospital or to send the patient back to the long-term care facility with the cultures incubating will have to be a clinical decision but in this particular patient who’s on dialysis, I would have extra heightened concern about methicillin-resistant Staph bacteremia.

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DR. CORDOVER: Second, a morbidly obese type II diabetic woman came in to our ED with malaise, low-grade fever and a painful, spreading, irregular flat area of redness and warmth over her right lower leg. My colleague called it cellulitis, treated her with cefazolin and admitted her. Given the recent change in MRSA prevalence, should we be treating this kind of infection differently?

DR. FOX: I believe that this also is a patient of concern for someone at risk for methicillin resistant Staph. Again, as we discussed earlier in the presentation, we’d have to look at the risk factors for this patient for the acquisition of community-associated MRSA. Patients that are diabetics are certainly more prone to Staphylococcal colonization and may have a slightly higher frequency of community-associated MRSA. There’s also concern about the penetration of antibiotics into this morbidly obese patient and specifically into the area of the leg and cellulitis. Beta-lactam drugs do have excellent penetration into tissues but they generally will need to be given in higher doses. For example, 2 grams of cefazolin every 8 hours, then a smaller dose of cefazolin. If we’re going to choose an agent for methicillin-resistant Staph, there are some limitations for vancomycin for penetration into skin and soft tissues, particularly for a morbidly obese patient. Hence, the administration of a couple of the newer anti-infective agents such as daptomycin or linezolid should be considered for this patient.

I would say that it’s generally not good practice to second-guess your colleagues. However, if presented with this particular circumstance, I would be cautious that there’s not methicillin resistant Staph and hence I would certainly consider discussing with the admitting physicians the possibility of methicillinresistant Staph in this particular occasion.

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